This is the easy version of the problem. The difference between the versions is that in this version, the array (a) is guaranteed to be a permutation. You can hack only if you solved all versions of this problem. Given an array (a) of size (n), and a parameter (k), an array (b) is called cool if the following conditions hold: For each (i) from (k) to (n), the array (a_{i-k+1},a_{i-k+2},\ldots,a_i) is a rearrangement of (b_{i-k+1},b_{i-k+2},\ldots,b_i). You are given two arrays (a) and (b) of size (n), and an integer (k). The array (a) is guaranteed to be a permutation (^{\text{∗}}). The array (b) only contains integers from (1) to (n), and (-1). Determine if it is possible to replace all (-1) in (b) with an integer from (1) to (n), such that (b) is cool with respect to (k). (^{\text{∗}})A permutation of length (n) is an array consisting of (n) distinct integers from (1) to (n) in arbitrary order. For example, (2,3,1,5,4) is a permutation, but (1,2,2) is not a permutation ((2) appears twice in the array), and (1,3,4) is also not a permutation ((n=3) but there is (4) in the array). Each test contains multiple test cases. The first line contains the number of test cases (t) ((1 \le t \le 10^4)). The description of the test cases follows. The first line of each test case contains two integers (n) and (k) ((1 \leq k \leq n \leq 2\cdot 10^5)). The second line of each test case contains (n) integers (a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n) ((1 \le a_i \le n)). In this version, it is guaranteed that each number from (1) to (n) appears exactly once. The third line of each test case contains (n) integers (b_1,b_2,\ldots,b_n) ((1 \leq b_i \leq n) or (b_i=-1)). It is guaranteed that the sum of (n) across all test cases does not exceed (2\cdot 10^5). For each test case,