B"There is a graph of n rows and 10^6 + 2 columns, where rows are numbered from 1 to n and columns from 0 to 10^6 + 1 : Let's denote the node in the row i and column j by (i, j) . Initially for each i the i -th row has exactly one obstacle -- at node (i, a_i) . You want to move some obstacles so that you can reach node (n, 10^6+1) from node (1, 0) by moving through edges of this graph (you can't pass through obstacles). Moving one obstacle to an adjacent by edge free node costs u or v coins, as below: Refer to the picture above for a better understanding. Now you need to calculate the minimal number of coins you need to spend to be able to reach node (n, 10^6+1) from node (1, 0) by moving through edges of this graph without passing through obstacles. The first line contains a single integer t ( 1 <= t <= 10^4 ) -- the number of test cases. The first line of each test case contains three integers n , u and v ( 2 <= n <= 100 , 1 <= u, v <= 10^9 ) -- the number of rows in the graph and the numbers of coins needed to move vertically and horizontally respectively. The second line of each test case contains n integers a_1, a_2, ... , a_n ( 1 <= a_i <= 10^6 ) -- where a_i represents that the obstacle in the i -th row is in node (i, a_i) . It's guaranteed that the sum of n over all test cases doesn't exceed 2 cdot 10^4 . For each test case, output a single integer -- the minimal number of coins you need to spend to be able to reach node (n, 10^6+1) from node (1, 0) by moving through edges of this graph without passing through obstacles. It can be shown that under the constraints of the problem there is always a way to make such a trip possible. In the first sample, two obstacles are at (1, 2) and (2,2) . You can move the obstacle on (2, 2) "...